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Verbal Question-Bank for GMAT Winners

An exhaustive 500+ Page Question Bank with over 600 fully solved questions covering
ALL areas of GMAT Verbal

    Internalising Verbal concepts is a sine qua non for a high Score.

    It is difficult to understand GMAT Verbal conceptually, even though it is all High School level stuff.

    Moreover, under time pressure, it is all too common to see students fumbling about with their
    grammar and their concepts, losing precious time.

    What is needed is to be able to look at a problem, and have a A-ha, I have seen it before, moment!

    And that is what the Winners do.

    Most winners are so well conversant with the concepts, that they don't have to spend too much  
    time thinking  about how to approach the problem, and which rules to apply.

    How do they do this? With Practice, Practice and more Practice.

    After you have gone through the theory, you should try to solve as many different problems as you
    can get your hand on.

    This is where the Question Bank for GMAT Winners comes in.

    This exhaustive eBook:

    Contains 600+ fully Solved Questions covering ALL topics of GMAT Verbal

    All problems Fully explained .

    Problems based around REAL GMAT Questions that have appeared in the recent past.

    Majority of questions are at the 700+ level to give you thorough practice.

    Focus on the following important topics

    Critical Reasoning (including Bold Face Type Questions) Reading Comprehension
    Sentence Correction

    Instant Delivery: Since this is an eBook, you will be able to download it instantaneously after you
    have made the payment.

    Buy now for a Special Launch Price of USD 24.95












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Have a look at some sample Questions from this book:

    Sample Sentence Correction Questions

    Here is a sample of 15 Sentence Correction Questions from the   Verbal Question Bank for
    GMAT Winners.
    (There are over 200 Sentence Correction Questions in the Verbal Question Bank)

    Question SET 1

    1. Disturbed by unfair treatment such as low pay and long hours, the idea of the work visa was
    improvements of the immigration law by the ACLU.

    (A)        the idea of the work visa was improvements of the immigration law by the ACLU.

    (B)        the work visa was an idea for improvements of the immigration law suggested by the ACLU.

    (C)        the ACLU suggested the work visa as an improvement to the immigration law.

    (D)        the ACLU suggested that immigration laws be improved by the work visa.

    (E)        the work visa was suggested to be an improvement of immigration law by the ACLU.


    2. In the 1920s, many stockbrokers were unable to collect payment from their investors, and it was
    a major contributor to the failure of the stock market in 1929.

    (A)        In the 1920s, many stockbrokers were unable to collect payment from their investors, and it

    (B)        The stockbrokers being unable to collect payment from their investors in the 1920s

    (C)        For stockbrokers in the 1920s, to be unable to collect payment from their investors

    (D)        The inability of the stockbrokers in the 1920s to collect payment from their investors

    (E)        The stockbroker inability in the 1920s to collect payment from their investors


    3. Mike believed her because she mixed it in a little truth with her story, although most of what she
    said was false.  

    (A)        mixed it

    (B)        mixed

    (C)        would mix

    (D)        had mixed

    (E)        had been mixing


    4.Most kindergarteners appear to have a desire to learn, but kindergarteners with specifically
    planned diets were determined to have increased abilities for sitting still for extended periods.

    (A)        were determined to have increased abilities

    (B)        have been determined to have an increased ability

    (C)        were determined to have an increasing ability

    (D)        had been determined to have increased abilities

    (E)        have been determined to have increasing abilities


    5. The players from the Seattle team received larger contracts than the other team.

    (A)        than the other team.

    (B)        than the other team’s.

    (C)        than those that are offered by other teams.

    (D)        than those that is received by other teams.

    (E)        than those received by the other team.


    6. It was an increase in the city’s population that allowed the school administration running a
    sufficient program for students that would later be known by the name of Afterhours.

    (A)        administration running a sufficient program for students that would later be known by the name of

    (B)        administration running a sufficient program for students later to be known as name

    (C)        administration running sufficient programs for students that would later be known by the name of

    (D)        administration to run a sufficient program for students that later will be known as being

    (E)        administration to run a sufficient program for students later to be known as


    7. Students with marginal grades might wonder if colleges, eager for new applicants, might be
    willing to overlook low grades in favor of high ACT scores.

    (A)        wonder if colleges, eager for new applicants, might be willing to overlook

    (B)        wonder if colleges, eager for new applicants, would be willing to overlook

    (C)        wonder if, in its eagerness for new applicants, colleges overlooked

    (D)        wonder as to whether, in its eagerness for new applicants, colleges were willing to overlook

    (E)        wonder whether colleges, eager for new applicants, would overlook


    8. To distinguish identical twins from fraternal twins, one must understand that identical twins come
    from a single egg that is later divided, while fraternal twins come from two separate eggs.

    (A)        identical twins from

    (B)        identical twins and

    (C)        identical twins or

    (D)        between identical twins or

    (E)        among identical twins or


    9. A recent Human Rights Watch (HRW) report stated that the skyrocketing expense of
    pharmaceuticals have risen to force third world countries to address absent government policies,
    insufficient instruction for healthcare workers, and excessively strict drug-control regulations.

    (A)        expense of pharmaceuticals have risen to force

    (B)        expense for pharmaceuticals are a force for

    (C)        expense of pharmaceuticals are forcing

    (D)        rises in pharmaceutical expenses are forcing

    (E)        pharmaceuticals expenses have risen to force  


    10. The analyst didn’t consider the company’s charitable donations, its volunteer project expenses,
    nor the ways one affects the other.

    (A)        nor the ways one affects the other.

    (B)        nor how each was affected by some other.

    (C)        or the way where one affects the next.

    (D)        or the ways in which they affect one another.

    (E)        or the ways that each affect some other.


    11. The report on the foundation’s endangered African wildlife states that the more the human
    population destroys the natural habitat, the species endangerment risk is greater.

    (A)        the species endangerment risk is greater.

    (B)        the risk of species endangerment is the greater.

    (C)        the greater the risk to endangered species.

    (D)        the endangerment of species is the greater.

    (E)        the species is greater for risk of endangerment.


    12. Financial institutions have begun demanding that analysts design a report summarizing profit
    and loss data for the last five years.

    (A)        demanding that analysts design a report summarizing

    (B)        demanding analysts to design a report summarizing

    (C)        demanding designed reports of analysts summarizing

    (D)        to demand that analysts design a report to summarize

    (E)        to demand that analysts should design a report to summarize


    13. Under normal circumstances, online classes are ideal for a specific type of student, such as
    people over thirty years of age and employed persons.

    (A)        people over thirty years of age and employed persons.

    (B)        people over thirty and the employed.

    (C)        the employed or those over the age of thirty.

    (D)        the employed or students who are over the age of thirty.

    (E)        those who have reached thirty years of age and are employed.


    14. The death of Timothy Cole will not prevent the courts from him being exonerated, should he
    prove to be innocent.

    (A)        from him being exonerated

    (B)        from exonerated him

    (C)        from exonerating him

    (D)        from being exonerated

    (E)        from having exonerating him


    15. Even though the prosecutors are reluctant to speak to the media about such cases, they can,
    and often are, forthcoming with official statements to the press.

    (A)        can, and often are, forthcoming with official statements to the press.

    (B)        can be, and often are, forthcoming with official statements to the press.

    (C)        can be, and often has been, forthcoming with official statements to the press.

    (D)        may have been, and often are, forthcoming with official statements to the press.

    (E)        might be, and often has been, forthcoming with official statements to the press.


    Answer SET 1

    1. C                 2. D                 3. B                 4. B                5. E                6. E        

    7. E                 8. A                 9. C                10. D             11. C              12 A

    13. C              14. C               15. B


    1. (Misplaced Modifier) A participial phrase in the beginning of the sentence should alert you of
    the existence of a misplaced modified in the sentence. Indeed there is one in this sentence,
    because an “idea” could not have been disturbed by unfair treatment.

    What the author intends to say is that the ACLU was disturbed by unfair treatment of low pay and
    unfair working conditions, and suggested an improvement to immigration laws in the form of the
    work visa. So, thee main clause of the sentence must start with the word “the ACLU.”

    Among the choices, only (C) and (D) start with this word. Between the two, (C) consists of a phrase
    and reflects the intention of the author precisely, while (D) is a full clause in the passive voice.

    (Remember that, if there is no other error and if the intention of the author is brought out clearly, a
    phrase is preferable to a clause, and a sentence in the active voice is preferable to one in the
    passive voice.)

    So, between (C) and (D), the former is the better choice, and is the answer.


    2. (Pronoun Error) The presence of ‘it’ in the underlined part should alert you of a pronoun error
    in the sentence. Remember the rule that every pronoun must have an antecedent within the
    sentence. So, what is the antecedent of ‘it’? The only singular noun phrase in the first part of the
    sentence is ‘payment from their investors.” But does the author intent to say that “payment from
    their investors was a major cause of the stock market crash of 1929?” No. one the contrary, what
    he intend to say is that the lack of payment from investors that was the major cause of the failure.
    So, the absence of an antecedent for the pronoun ‘it’ is the grammatical error in the given
    sentence. So, (A) is wrong.

    The other choices mentioned the reason for the failure correctly, but use the phrases “The
    stockbrokers being unable,” “For the stockbrokers to be unable,” “The inability of the stockbroker,”
    and “The stockbroker inability.”

    Among these, “The inability of the stockbroker” is the most idiomatic phrase, and (D) is the answer.  
    To say “to be unable to….. was the cause of” sounds incorrect, making choice (C) incorrect. It is
    more correct to say “the inability…. was the cause of”


    3. (Error in Tense) A glance at the choices should alert you to the only probable error being that
    of an incorrect tense. The sentence begins “Mike believed her” this is something that has
    happened already; a simple past tense. If this was currently happening, it would be stated “Mike
    believes her.” To stick with the same tense, the underlined portion must also be in the past. The
    last phrase “most of what she said was false” is also in the past. The underlined portion is “mixed it”
    as in “she mixed it in a little truth.” Although the correct past tense of “mix” is used “mixed,” there is
    an incorrect “it” thrown in there, making it idiomatically incorrect.

    So, (A) is wrong. Other choices offer versions of the past tense, but only option (B) offers the
    simple past tense “mixed.” “she mixed in a little truth”


    4. (Error in Tense) if there is an error in the underlined part (“were determined to have increased
    abilities”), it must be either relating to tense in the phrase “were determined,” or relating to number
    in the phrase “increased abilities.”

    A quick look at the answer choice shows the phrases “have been determined,” “were determined,” ”
    had been determined” and “have been determined,” giving us the hint that we should examinee the
    given sentence for an error in the use of the correct tense.

    There is indeed such an error, because the first part of the sentence (appears to have a desire) is
    in the present tense, while the second underlined part (were determined to have) is in the past
    tense. So (A) is wrong.

    (C) and (D) also have the same error, and can be rejected for that reason alone.

    (B) and (E) both have the correct present perfect tense. But (B) mentions “an increased ability,”
    while (E) talks of “increasing abilities.”

    The first part of the sentence talks of a completed action, “with a specially planned diet” and its
    effect must also be something completed such as “an increased ability,” and not something
    incomplete, such as “increasing”

    so, (B) is a better choice than (E), and is the answer.


    5. (Comparing Apples/Oranges) Whenever a phrase indicating comparison (such as “more
    than,” “less than,” “as good as,” “better than”) is found in a sentence, you should feel alerted about
    a possible error of comparing an apple with an orange. Indeed the given sentence has this error,
    because it seeks to compare “the larger contracts” (of the Seattle team) with “the other team.”
    (instead of the contracts of the other team).

    So, (A) is wrong.

    (B) also has the same error, and can bee discarded.

    (C) and (D) both correct this error, but have the error of tense by introducing the present tense in
    the predicates (‘are’ and ‘is’) while the verb in the non-underlined part “received” is in the past
    tense.

    (E) completes a cogent, unambiguous and grammatically sentence, and is the answer.


    6. (Appropriate Preposition) The given sentence has the awkward phrase “allowed the school
    administration running a program” should raise suspicion that there could be an inappropriate
    preposition. The phrase “allowed the school administration to run a sufficient program” two of the
    answer choices confirms this suspicion. The phrase “allowed to run” is certainly more idiomatic than
    the phrase “allowed… running.” So, (A),

    (B) and (C) are wrong.

    Between the phrases “[program] that later will be known as being” and “[program]  later to be
    known as,” the later is much shorter and more precise. So, between (D) and (E), we should select
    (E) as the answer.

    (Remember that, even if you were not sure of the answer, you would have been correct by
    choosing the shorter version.)


    7. (The use of “if” and “whether”) Whenever you find the word “if” in the underlined portion of a
    sentence, you should suspect that it has been erroneously used in placed of “whether.” The use of
    the word “whether” in two of the answer choices should confirm this suspicion. Remember that the
    word “if” must be used only as a future conditionality, and not when an option is indicated. The
    given sentence talks of a speculation, which implies that it may or may not be true. So, the proper
    word to use here is “whether” and not

    “if.”

    (A), (B) and (C) can all be discarded for this reason alone.

    The main difference between (D) and (E) is that the former uses the present tense (“were willing”)
    while the latter uses the future tense (“would overlook”). The student is wondering if, at some point
    in time in the future, a college would be willing to overlook his or her low grades. D implies a
    wondering if they are willing to do so now, E implies wondering if they will do so in the future. So, (E)
    is the most appropriate answer.

    (E) is better than (D) in other respect also because the phrase “wonder whether” is neater than
    “wonder as to whether,” and the phrase “eager for profit” is neater than “in its eagerness of profit.”

    (In this case also, you could have arrived at the correct answer between (D) and (E) by just
    choosing the shorter one.)


    8. (Distinguish X from Y) Whenever you find the word “distinguish” in the given sentence, you
    should be alerted about the possibility of a wrong preposition being used with it. The correct phrase
    involving this word is “distinguish X from Y.” The given sentence uses this correct phrase, and is
    probably the answer.

    Now, scanning the answer choices, we find that they all result in wrong phrases “distinguish X and
    Y.”

    “distinguish between X or Y” and “distinguish among X or Y.”

    So, we can confirm (A) itself as the answer.


    9. (Redundancy) The obvious error in the given sentence is the necessary repetition of the same
    idea in the phrase “skyrocketing expenses pharmaceutical expenses have risen,” because
    “skyrocketing” itself means “rising.” So (A) is wrong.

    (D) and (E) also use the words “rises” and “risen” respectively, and can be discarded for that
    reason alone.

    The difference between choices (B) and (C) are in phrases “expense of pharmaceuticals” and
    “expense for pharmaceuticals” and “are a force for” and “are forcing.”

    If you substitute the word “cost’ for ‘expenses’, you can immediately conclude that “cost of
    pharmaceuticals,” and not “costs for pharmaceuticals,” is the correct phrase. Also, the verb form of
    a word (“are forcing”) is always considered to be more idiomatic than its noun form (“are a force
    for”). So, on both these counts, (C) is a better choice than (B).

    {If you are still in doubt, apply the rule of choosing the shorter between the two, and you will still get
    (C) as the answer!}


    10. (Quantity Word) Remember that the phrase “each other” must be used when referring to two
    persons or things. Whenever the number involved is more than two, the correct phrase to be used
    is “one another.”

    The non-underlined part of the sentence talks of the company’s “donations” and “expenses,”
    implying more than a single donation and expense. So, the use of the phrase “each other” to refer
    to them is ungrammatical and (A) is wrong.

    (B) and (E) also contain the same error, and can be discarded for that reason alone.

    Though (C) is shorter than (D), it has the error of using the conjunction “where” (which should be
    used only to refer to a place) to refer to “way” (meaning “manner” in the given context). Moreover, it
    is not intention of the author that every donation must be compared only to the “next” not to all. So,
    (C) is wrong.

    (D) has no error, completes a clear, cogent, unambiguous and grammatical sentence, and is the
    answer.


    11. (Special Sentence) The expression “the more the human population destroys natural habitat”
    must be complemented by a similar phrase in the latter part. So, the phrase “the species
    endangerment risk is greater” in the second part of the sentence must be replaced by “the greater
    the risk to endangered species.”

    Among the choices it is only (C) that has this beginning. It also fits in well into the sentence.

    So, (C) is the answer.

    12. (Subjunctive Mood) Whenever you find verbs such as “demand,” “order,” “request,” etc., in
    the given sentence, you should test it for the correct grammatical form of the subjunctive mood.
    The use or present tense verb “design” in the sentence is correct from this point of view. The given
    sentence has no other error, and (A) itself can be chosen as the answer unless we find an even
    more elegant version among the other choices.

    (B), (D) and (E) have the expressions “demand to design,” “demand design” and “demand should
    design,” which are inappropriate for a sentence in the subjunctive mood.

    (C) has the error of using an inappropriate preposition: the grammatical phrase is “reports of
    analysts” and not “reports from analysts” or “reports by analysts.”


    So, we can confirm (A) itself as the answer.

    13. (Word Order) A quick scanning of the answer choices shows that all of them use almost the
    same words but written different sequence, indicating that the error, if any, in the given sentence is
    the use of a wrong word order. When we examine the sentence closely, we can see that there is
    indeed such an error. The given sentence would imply that two types of students make ideal
    candidates for online classes; students “over the age of thirty” and students over “employed
    persons.” While the former phrase makes sense, the latter phrase does not.

    Obviously the author wishes to list the two important capabilities of old people as “over the age of
    thirty” and “employed persons.” So, in order to remove the ambiguity, the phrase “employed
    persons” (or employed students, the employed, etc.) must be stated first, so that it does not come
    after the preposition “over.”

    So, (A) is wrong

    (B) has the same error, and can be eliminated for that reason alone.

    (E) implies that there is a single ideal group consisting of people who are both over thirty and
    employed, instead of two groups meeting one of two criteria. So, (E) is also wrong.

    (C) and (D) correct the basic error in the given sentence. The difference between them is in the
    phrases “the employed or those over..” and “the employed or students who are over.” The former
    is shorter and more idiomatic, and is the better choice.

    So, (C) is the answer.


    14. (Word Choice) What the author wishes to say is that Timothy Cole’s will not stop the court
    from exonerating Timothy Cole. The sentence beings with “will not prevent the courts…” The clause
    “from him being exonerated” does not convey the intended meaning correctly; his death cannot
    prevent the courts from him being exonerated.  So, (A) is wrong. What is essential here is the
    pronoun “him” or “he.” Who is being exonerated? Timothy Cole. People are exonerated. Not the
    courts, not the death. “From exonerating him,” “him from being exonerated,” etc. (D) does not have
    this essential pronoun, so this answer choice can be discarded for this reason.

    Of these, (C) offers the only correctly worded answer “The death….will not prevent the courts from
    exonerating him should he prove to be innocent,” and is the answer.


    15. (Asymmetry/Two-Part Sentence) if we remove the second main clause (“and often are”) from
    the sentence we get the expression “they [prosecutors] can forthcoming with official statements to
    the press.”

    “Can” is only an auxiliary verb, and cannot form a predicate of a sentence by itself. So, there is lack
    of

    symmetry in this two-part sentence, and it should be corrected as “they can be forthcoming with
    official statements to the press.” (Or reinserting the “and often are,” “they can be, and often are,
    forthcoming with official statements to the press.”)

    (B) makes this correction, and does not have any other error, and is the answer.

    The introducing of the present perfect tense (“often has been”) in (C) is wrong, because the verb in
    the sentence (“can be”) is in the simple present tense.

    (D) can also be rejected for the same reason. It has the additional error of introducing and element
    of doubt in the use of the phrase “may have been,” whereas the author’s intention is to make a
    positive assertion about prosecutor’s statements to the press. (E) unnecessarily mixes the past
    tense (“might be”) and present perfect tense (“has been”) and can be rejected for that reason.



    Sample Critical Reasoning Questions
    There are nearly 200 Critical Reasoning Questions in the Verbal Question Bank for GMAT Winners

    Critical Reasoning Sample Set of 10 Questions

    1. In Sunnyville the new Alternative Energy Action party won two seats on the seven-member town
    council in 1988, it lost both of those seats in the 1992 election; even though the party’s pro-
    alternative energy platform had essentially remained unchanged. This decline in the party’s
    fortunes clearly demonstrates that, in Sunnyville, alternative energy concerns faded in significance
    between 1988 and 1992.

    Which of the following, if true, most seriously weakens the argument?

    (A) Between 1998 and 1992, the number of eligible voters in Sunnyville rose, but not the
    percentage who actually voted.

    (B) Between 1988 and 1992, Sunnyville’s leading political party revised its platform, adopting the
    policies of the Alternative Energy Action party

    (C) The parties that ran candidates in the 1992 election in Sunnyville were the same as those that
    had done so in the 1988 election.

    (D) In 1992 the Alternative Energy Action party won fewer votes in Sunnyville than it had won in
    1988.

    (E) Between 1988 and 1992, some measures intended to provide alternative energy had been
    adopted by the town council, but with inconclusive results


    2. A program instituted in a particular state allows parents to prepay their children’s future high
    school boarding school tuition at current rates. The program then pays the tuition annually for the
    child at any of the state’s boarding schools in which the child enrolls. Parents should participate in
    the program as a means of decreasing the cost of their children’s high school education.

    Which of the following, if true is the most convincing reason for parents not to participate in the
    program?

    (A) The parents are unsure about which boarding school in the state the child will attend,

    (B) The amount of money accumulated by putting the prepayment funds in an interest-bearing
    account today will be greater than the total cost of tuition for any of the boarding schools when the
    child enrolls.

    (C) The annual cost of tuition at the state’s boarding schools is expected to increase at a faster
    rate than the annual increase in the cost of living.

    (D) Some of the state’s boarding schools are contemplating large increases in tuition next year.

    (E) The prepayment plan would not cover the cost of room and board at any of the state’s boarding
    schools.


    3. Last year, dental insurance paid $11 billion of the $16 billion spent on dental care. It is thus
    indispensable for a dental care provider to be eligible for reimbursement by a patient insurer. As a
    result, it is the insurers who decide who is a dental healer in modern society.


    Which of the following, if true, weakens the argument above?

    (A) The kinds of dental services not covered by dental insurance are relatively inexpensive

    (B) Dental insurance companies must reimburse any provider licensed by state agencies that
    regulate dental care

    (C) Patients sometimes choose to receive a particular treatment from a familiar dentist even if that
    treatment is not eligible for reimbursement

    (D) Many of the dental-care services demanded by insured patients are unnecessary

    (E) A significant portion of uninsured patients forgo needed treatment because they are unable to
    afford the high cost


    4. In a recent study, sedentary middle-aged women who drank more than two cups of caffeinated
    tea a day were found more likely than other  middle-aged women to have a high blood level of
    cholesterol, which is a factor increasing the risk of heart disease. Cholesterol can reach the blood
    from food and drink but is not contained in tea.

    Which of the following, if true, most seriously weakness a conclusion from the study that for
    sedentary middle-aged women tea increases the risk of heart attack?

    (A) A sedentary style of life increases levels of cholesterol in the blood.

    (B) Tea contains caffeine, which acts as a stimulant that increases heart rate.

    (C) The women studied drank their tea without milk or cream, which contain cholesterol.

    (D) In both groups, the women were likely to be over-weight, and excess weight is a factor that
    increases the risk of heart disease.

    (E) The women who drank more than two cups of tea a day also at more foods high in cholesterol.


    5. Since the federal government began deregulating railroad ravel in the mid 1970s, major train
    companies in the United States have cut their employees ranks by more than 1000 persons. Thus,
    although deregulated competition has afforded consumers dramatically lower fares, the economy of
    the United States has been harmed by the deregulation of the railways.


    The argument above would be most seriously weakened if it were true that

    (A) a poll of people in the United States shows exceptionally strong support for railroad deregulation

    (B) fewer passengers now travel on commercial trains than traveled on them in 1976, with the
    consequence that fewer employees are needed to operate the airlines than were needed in 1976

    (C) trains now run a more restricted regular schedule of routes than they did in 1976, with the
    consequence that the industry is more highly concentrated and competitive than it was before 1976

    (D) several major train companies now enjoy significantly higher profits and levels of employment
    than they did in the years preceding the Deregulation Acts

    (E) smaller carriers have thrived as a result of deregulation and now provide more new jobs than
    the major train companies have eliminated since 1976


    6. In primates it is the hard palate that permits breathing while eating. Clearly, breathing while
    eating is necessary to maintain the high rate of metabolism of primates.

    The author’s assertions would be most weakened by the discovery of primate species that had a

    (A) high rate of metabolism and the ability to breathe while eating

    (B) low rate of metabolism and the ability to breathe while eating

    (C) low rate of metabolism and no ability to breathe while eating

    (D) high rate of metabolism and no hard palate

    (E) low rate of metabolism and a hard palate


    7.  The average age of university presidents in a large sample of universities is 62. The average
    age of university presidents in those same universities 25 years ago was approximately eight years
    younger. On the basis of those data, it can be concluded that university presidents, including those
    at online universities, in general tend to be older now.

    Which of the following casts the most doubt on the conclusion drawn above?

    (A) The dates when the university presidents assumed their current positions have not been
    specified.

    (B) No information is given concerning the average number of years that university presidents
    remain in office.

    (C) The information is based only on universities that have been operating for at least 25 years.

    (D) Information concerning the exact number of universities in the sample has not been given.

    (E) None of the answers provided cast doubt on the conclusion drawn above.


    8. A government agency that reimburses its clients for bills they have paid for child care has had
    this year’s budget cut. To save money without cutting reimbursements or otherwise harming clients
    financially, it plans to delay reimbursements to clients for forty days, thereby earning 180 million per
    year in interest on the reimbursement money.

    Which of the following, if true, is the best criticism of the agency’s plan?

    (A) Daycares typically hold parents responsible for the ultimate payment of their bills.

    (B) The agency cannot save money by cutting staff because it is already understaffed.

    (C) Some clients borrow money to pay their daycare bills and they will pay forty extra days of
    interest on these loans.

    (D) Some clients pay their daycare bills immediately, but they often taken more than forty days to
    file with the agency for reimbursement.

    (E) The agency’s budget was cut by more than $180 million last year.


    9.  Modern computers are more susceptible to viruses than computers of the early 1980s and early
    1990s.  
    Today, computers are web-enabled and most often used connected to the internet.
    Recently, a government computer system was infected with a computer virus that was caused by an
    internet website.

    Clearly, modern computers are put at risk by the internet.

    The two portions in boldface play which of the following roles?

    (A) The first is a principle that the argument relies on and the second is a conclusion that can be
    drawn from the first.

    (B) The first is a fact that argument relies on and the second is a conclusion that must be drawn
    from this argument.

    (C) The first acknowledges a consideration that supports that main position; the second is that
    conclusion.

    (D) The first is an evidence that supports the conclusion, the second is that conclusion.

    (E) The first is a principle that is necessary for this argument, the second is a conclusion that could
    be drawn from this argument.


    10. Modern navigation systems, which are found in most of today’s corporate helicopters are made
    with low-power circuitry, which is more susceptible to interference than the vacuum-tube circuitry
    found in older aircraft.

    During landing, navigation systems receive radio signals from the air traffic control to
    guide the helicopter to the landing strip. Recently, one helicopter with low-power circuitry
    veered off course during landing, its dials dimming, when a passenger turned on a laptop
    computer. Clearly, modern aircraft navigation systems are being put at risk by the
    electronic devices that passengers carry on board, such as cassette players and laptop
    computers.

    The two portions in boldface play which of the following roles?

    (A) The first is a principle that the argument relies on and the second is a conclusion that can be
    drawn from the first.

    (B) The first is a fact that argument relies on and the second is a conclusion that must be drawn
    from this argument.

    (C) The first acknowledges a consideration that supports that main position; the second is that
    conclusion.

    (D) The first is an evidence that supports the conclusion, the second is that conclusion.

    (E) The first is a principle that is necessary for this argument, the second is a conclusion that could
    be drawn from this argument.


    Solutions: Critical Reasoning Sample Set


    1. On the basis of the information that the new Alternative Energy Party, which had won 2 seats out
    of 7 in the town council in 1988, had lost both of them in 1992, the author argues that the decline in
    the party’s fortunes clearly demonstrates that alternative energy concerns faded in significance in
    the town during this period.

    We have been asked to locate that choice which most seriously weakens this argument.

    (A) merely says that both the number of voters and the number who voted increased between 1988
    and 1992, but does not give a reason which strengthens or weakens the author’s theory why the
    Alternative Energy Action Party lost its seats.


    (B) says that the town’s leading political party (which had won the majority of the other 5 seats in
    1988) had revised its platform adopting a strong alternative energy stance. If this is true, voters
    who are in favor of alternative energy might have voted for the leading political party itself this time
    instead of for the Alternative Energy Action party. So, the defeat of the members of the Alternative
    Energy party would not mean that the environmental concerns had faded in significance in the
    minds of the voters. On the contrary; the reason why the dominant party adopted a strong
    alternative energy stance may itself be because the public concern for alternative energy had
    become more intense, and the dominant party wanted to go along with that popular sentiment. So,
    it is (B) which seriously weakens the argument of the author, and is the answer.

    (C) neither strengthens nor weakens the argument, and is not the answer.

    (D) strengthens the argument of the author, and does not weaken it.

    (E) would give a reason why the voters could have been disillusioned with the Alternative Energy
    Action party, because of which environmental concerns could have faded in significance. So, (E)
    strengthens the argument of the author, and does not weaken it.


    2. The program described is in the nature of insurance against future increases in boarding school
    tuition fees.

    It suggests that the parents participating in the program should pay an amount equal to the present
    day tuition fee now itself, and the administrators of the program will then meet the actual enhanced
    tuition fees when the child grows older and enrolls in any boarding school in the state.

    We have been asked to identify the choice which is the most appropriate reason for parents not to
    participate in the program.

    Obviously, attraction of any such program would lie in the probability that the rate of enhancement
    in tuition fees will be greater than the rate of interest that a person can earn by depositing an
    amount equal to the present day tuition fees in appropriate savings bonds. If the rate of interest
    that can be earned is likely to be more than the rate of enhancement of the tuition fees, it will be
    more prudent for a parent not to participate in the program, but to invest the money in such interest-
    bearing bonds. (B) says this, and is the answer.

    (A) need not deter a parent from participating in the program, because the program will cover the
    fees in any of the boarding schools in the state.

    (C) is an argument in favor of, and not against, joining the scheme.

    (D) is also an argument in favor of joining the scheme.

    The scheme covers only the tuition fee in any boarding school. So, if the student is to stay in a
    hostel, the parent has to bear the cost of room and board, irrespective of whether he joins the
    scheme or not. So, (E) is a consideration neither in favor nor against joining the scheme.


    3. The conclusion drawn by the author is that, since it is the insurance companies which reimburse
    the expenditure incurred by dental-care providers, such providers are under the control of the
    insurance companies, and insurance companies can therefore decide who shall take to the
    profession of providing dental-care. This is the meaning of the last sentence which says, “it is the
    insurers who decide who is a dental healer in modern society’.

    (A) implies that all expensive dental services are covered by dental insurance. This will strengthen
    and not weaken the argument of the author that it is the insurance companies which decide who is
    the healer in modern society. So, (A) is not the answer.

    (B) points out that it is the state agencies in charge of regulation of dental-care who license dental
    providers, and dental insurance companies are bound to reimburse such providers for the services
    rendered by them to the insured persons. This means that it is the state agencies, and not the
    insurance companies, who decide who are the dental healers in modern society. So, it is (B) which
    weakens the argument of the author, and is the answer.

    (C) talks of a situation in which the insurance companies are not bound to reimburse a dental-care
    expenditure, and is therefore not relevant to the author’s argument. So, (C) is not the answer.

    (D) and (E) are also not relevant to the author’s argument, and can be discarded.

    4. The passage says that, though tea does not itself contain cholesterol, middle-aged women who
    drink more than two cups of tea a day have been found to be more prone to cholesterol-related
    heart disease than are other middle-aged women.

    We have been asked to identify the choice which will weaken the drawing of the logical conclusion
    from the above finding that tea is responsible for heart attack in sedentary middle-aged women.

    (A) does not mention the drinking of tea at all, and neither weakens nor strengthens the given
    conclusion.

    (B) strengthens and does not weaken, the conclusion that tea increases the risk of heart attack,
    and is not the answer.

    (C) also does not weaken the conclusion that tea increases the risk of heart attack, and is not the
    answer.

    (D) neither strengthens nor weakens the given conclusion, and is not the answer.

    The last sentence of the passage says that tea by itself does not contain cholesterol. If, as stated
    in (E), the middle-aged women who drank more than two cups of tea a day also ate more foods
    which are high in cholesterol, then the high level of cholesterol in their blood would have been
    caused by these foods and not by tea. If true, it is (E) that weakens the conclusion that tea
    increases the risk of heart disease, and is the answer.


    5. The only reason advanced by the author to support his statement that the deregulation of the
    railroad industry has harmed the economy of the United States is that it has resulted in a cut by
    major train companies of 1000 of their employees.

    We have been asked to identify the choice which will weaken this conclusion.

    We should therefore look for that choice which implies that the same deregulation of the railroad
    system has contributed to the creation of more than 1000 jobs in some other sector in the United
    States.

    (E) says that smaller carriers of passengers have thrived as a result of deregulation, and they now
    provide more new jobs than the major train companies have eliminated since 1976. This, if true,
    weakens the argument of the author that the deregulation of the railroad industry has harmed the
    economy of the country. So, (E) is the answer.

    (B) looks like a possible answer, but is wrong, because the fact that fewer numbers of passengers
    now travel on commercial trains may itself be a direct consequence of the deregulation of the
    railroad system, and this will strengthen, and not weaken, the given argument.

    (B) is wrong because, it only says that several of the major train companies in the US have higher
    levels of employment today than they had before the deregulation, but it does not refute the
    statement that, when all major train companies are considered together, there has been a net
    elimination of 1000 jobs.


    6. (Metabolism is the process by which chemical reactions in plants and animals create the energy
    needed by them to live. Palate is the roof of the mouth.) The author’s assertion is that breathing
    while eating is necessary to maintain the high rate of metabolism of primates, and that this facility is
    provided by the hard palate.

    We have been asked to identify the choice which will most weaken this assertion.

    The author’s assertion relates to primates with high rates of metabolism. So, (B), (C) and (E), all of
    which relate to animals with a low rate of metabolism, can straightaway be ruled out.

    (A) will only conform to the general property of primates referred to by the author, and will
    strengthen, and not weaken his assertion.

    (D) would prove that the lack of a secondary palate and the consequential incapability to breathe
    while eating are not necessary for a high rate of metabolism in all primates, and will therefore
    weaken the author’s assertion. So, (D) is the answer.


    7. From a study of the average ages of university presidents in ‘a large sample of universities’ a
    general conclusion has been arrived at, which is then presumed to be applicable to all universities.

    We have been asked to identify that choice which would cast the most doubt on this conclusion.  
    Since the question asks for the answer that casts the most doubt, one of the answers must be
    chosen and answer (E) none of the above is incorrect.

    We should therefore look for that statement which implies that the sample universities studied did
    not represent the majority of universities in some important respect, and that it is therefore
    unscientific to arrive at a general conclusion based on this unrepresentative sample. (A ‘large
    sample’ may still constitute a minority of the total number of companies.)

    The phrase ‘in those same universities 20 years ago’ in the third line of the passage implies that
    the companies taken up for the sample study were limited to those which have been operating for
    more than 20 years. If a many of the existing universities (including online universities) are, in fact,
    less than 20 years old, the phenomenon prevailing in the older universities cannot be inferred as
    being applicable generally to all universities. It is quite likely that the average age of the university
    presidents of newer universities is much less than 57.

    It is (C) which implies this, and is the answer.

    8. With a view to offset the budgetary cut that it had faced, the government agency plans to earn
    an interest of $180 million a year through a deliberate delay in the reimbursement of daycare
    expenses to its clients by forty days. It claims that, by implementing this plan, it would neither cut
    reimbursements nor otherwise harm its clients financially.

    We have been asked to identify that choice which can be described as the best criticism of the
    agency’s plan.

    Since the agency’s claim is that its plan will neither result in cutting reimbursements nor otherwise
    harming its clients financially, we should look for that choice which implies either that the
    reimbursement is in fact reduced, or that the clients are otherwise financially harmed by this plan.

    The first sentence of the passage specifically states that the schemes of reimbursement means
    that the clients have to first pay the bills to the daycares, and only later can claim reimbursement
    from the government agency. So, (A) states the obvious, and is not relevant in evaluating the effect
    of the delay in reimbursement by 40 days. So, (A) is not the answer.

    (B) means that the agency is not in a position to save on its administrative costs. This, if true, will
    justify, and weaken, the agency’s plan to make savings through other means such as a deliberate
    delay in making reimbursements and earning interest thereby. So, (B) is not the answer.


    (C) means that these clients will be financially harmed by the planned delay by the government
    agency in reimbursing their claims, thereby contradicting its claim that the plan would not harm its
    clients financially. So, (C) would be the best criticism of the agency’s plan, and is the answer.

    (D) only means that, in respect of such delayed claims, the agency has already been benefiting by
    interest-earning.

    Therefore (D), by itself, does not constitute a criticism of the agency’s present plan to delay
    reimbursement of claims by another forty days.

    The given passage does not claim that the interest of $180 million earned by the deliberate delay
    in the reimbursement of claims was intended to cover the budget cut fully. So, (E) even if it is true,
    is not a valid criticism of the agency’s plan.


    9. The question states that today’s computers are web enabled and clearly that is the reason that
    computers are at risk of developing viruses.  The second sentence is the conclusion drawn from
    the first sentence.  Since all of the answers acknowledge that, we must consider the purpose of the
    first underlined sentence in the passage.  (C) describes the first sentence as a consideration that is
    important to the stated conclusion.  This is the best explanation of the sentence and is the answer.  
    The fact that most modern day computers are web-enabled is not a principle or an argument so
    answers (A) (B) and (E) are wrong. The author did not state enough evidence to make that first
    underlined sentence “evidence”; therefore answer (D) is incorrect.



    10. The question states that today’s helicopters have modern navigation systems that are
    susceptible to interference from electronic devices and clearly that is the reason that a helicopter
    veered off course after a passenger turned on a laptop computer.  The second sentence is the
    conclusion drawn from the first sentence.  

    Since all of the answers acknowledge that, we must consider the purpose of the first underlined
    sentence in the passage. (C) describes the first sentence as a consideration that is important to
    the stated conclusion.  

    This is the best explanation of the sentence and is the answer.  The fact that most modern day
    helicopters have modern navigation systems is not a principle or an argument so answers (A) (B)
    and (E) are wrong. The author did not state enough evidence to make that first underlined
    sentence “evidence”; therefore answer (D) is incorrect.


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