99 Percentile GMAT Verbal – Critical Reasoning

Here are 20 varied questions to test your Critical Reasoning skills for the GMAT

Q1. Workplace Productivity

Manager: In many organizations, offering employees flexible working hours has been shown to increase productivity and employee satisfaction. Studies have consistently found that when employees can choose their work hours, they are more likely to complete tasks efficiently and with greater enthusiasm. However, implementing a flexible working hours policy in our company is unlikely to have the same effect, as most of our employees work in teams that rely on close coordination and overlapping schedules.

In the manager’s argument, the two portions in boldface play which of the following roles?

A) The first is a generalization that the manager accepts as true; the second is presented as an exception to that generalization.
B) The first is a pattern of cause and effect that the manager predicts will not hold in the case at issue; the second offers a specific reason in support of that prediction.
C) The first is a general observation about workplace productivity that the manager uses to argue against a proposed policy; the second is an alternative approach that the manager proposes instead.
D) The first is evidence that the manager offers in support of a certain prediction; the second is that prediction.
E) The first is a consideration that weighs against the main position that the manager defends; the second is that position.

Argument Construction

Situation:
The manager states that offering flexible working hours has generally increased productivity and satisfaction in other organizations. However, they argue that this policy would not have the same effect in their company because of the need for team coordination and overlapping schedules.

Reasoning:
The first boldface sentence describes a general pattern of success in other organizations (flexible working hours increase productivity and satisfaction), while the second boldface sentence explains why this pattern is unlikely to apply in the manager’s company due to its specific team-based structure.

A. Incorrect. While the second sentence presents an exception to the generalization, the first sentence does not just serve as a generalization—it also establishes a pattern of success.
B. Correct. The first sentence describes a general cause-and-effect pattern that the manager predicts will not hold in their company. The second sentence provides a specific reason (team coordination and overlapping schedules) for this prediction.
C. Incorrect. The manager does not propose an alternative approach; the second boldface sentence explains why the general pattern is not applicable.
D. Incorrect. The first sentence does not serve as direct evidence; rather, it presents a general pattern observed elsewhere.
E. Incorrect. The first sentence does not weigh against the main position but instead establishes a contrast with the second sentence.

Correct Answer: B.

Q2. Environmental Policy

Environmental Scientist: In many regions, reforestation efforts have successfully reduced soil erosion and restored biodiversity. Studies show that planting native tree species in degraded areas improves soil stability and provides habitats for local wildlife. However, in regions with severe water scarcity, reforestation initiatives that rely heavily on irrigation are likely to exacerbate water shortages, making them unsustainable in the long term.

In the environmental scientist’s argument, the two portions in boldface play which of the following roles?

A) The first is a general observation that the scientist accepts as true; the second is presented as a limitation to the applicability of that observation.
B) The first is evidence that the scientist offers in support of a proposed policy; the second explains why the policy is not universally applicable.
C) The first is a pattern of cause and effect that the scientist predicts will not hold in the case at issue; the second provides evidence supporting that prediction.
D) The first acknowledges a consideration that weighs against the scientist’s position; the second is that position.
E) The first is a generalization that the scientist disputes; the second is an alternative explanation that supports the scientist’s argument.

Argument Construction

Situation:
The environmental scientist argues that reforestation is generally beneficial for reducing soil erosion and restoring biodiversity. However, the scientist believes that in water-scarce regions, reforestation efforts dependent on irrigation could worsen water shortages, making them unsustainable.

Reasoning:
The first boldface sentence highlights a general pattern of success for reforestation efforts. The second boldface sentence explains why this success does not apply in regions with severe water scarcity due to the additional pressure on water resources.

A. Correct. The first sentence provides a general observation about the benefits of reforestation, while the second highlights a limitation to its applicability in certain conditions.
B. Incorrect. The first sentence does not propose a policy, and the argument is about the limitations of a general pattern rather than supporting a specific policy.
C. Incorrect. The first sentence describes a general pattern but does not serve as evidence for a prediction; the second sentence explains a limitation instead.
D. Incorrect. The first sentence does not weigh against the scientist’s position but establishes a general benefit of reforestation.
E. Incorrect. The first sentence is not a disputed generalization, and the second sentence does not offer an alternative explanation but instead highlights a limitation.

Correct Answer: A.

Q3. The Role of Innovation in Music

A prominent music historian claims that contemporary composers are not as innovative as those from previous centuries. To support this claim, the historian analyzes trends in Western classical music and finds that between 1600 and 1900, composers frequently introduced new musical forms (such as the symphony and the sonata), whereas modern composers primarily experiment within pre-existing genres. The historian concludes that innovation in Western music has declined significantly in recent decades.

Which of the following, if true, most seriously weakens the historian’s argument?

A) Many modern composers focus on electronic and experimental music, which introduces entirely new compositional techniques.
B) Innovation in music is difficult to measure because artistic movements evolve gradually rather than in distinct phases.
C) The historian’s analysis focuses only on classical music and ignores other genres where significant innovation may be occurring.
D) Several 20th- and 21st-century composers have won prestigious awards for works that redefine musical structure.
E) Older musical forms, such as the symphony and fugue, continue to influence contemporary compositions.

Argument Evaluation

Situation:
The historian claims that contemporary composers are less innovative than their predecessors, citing a decline in the introduction of new musical forms in classical music.

Reasoning:
The key flaw in the argument is that it assumes innovation is only reflected in the creation of new forms rather than in other ways, such as new techniques, styles, or technologies. The argument also fails to account for innovation in non-classical genres, making its conclusion potentially misleading.

A. Correct. If modern composers are introducing entirely new techniques in electronic and experimental music, this directly undermines the claim that innovation has declined.
B. Incorrect. While true, this does not directly challenge the argument’s assumption that innovation can be measured through musical forms.
C. Incorrect. This points out a limitation of the historian’s scope but does not prove that innovation within classical music has continued.
D. Incorrect. While this shows that modern compositions are recognized, it does not necessarily prove that they are innovative.
E. Incorrect. This supports the idea that past forms still influence modern music but does not counter the argument about declining innovation.

Correct Answer: A.

Q4. Commercial Success in the Film Industry

A well-known film critic argues that modern directors are less skilled at storytelling than those from earlier decades. To support this claim, the critic points out that films from the 1970s and 1980s had more original screenplays, whereas modern films rely heavily on sequels, remakes, and adaptations. The critic concludes that this trend demonstrates a decline in narrative creativity in contemporary cinema.

Which of the following, if true, most seriously weakens the critic’s argument?

A) Many modern films incorporate complex, nonlinear storytelling techniques that were rarely used in older films.
B) Audience preferences have shifted over time, with moviegoers now favoring familiar franchises over entirely new stories.
C) Original screenplays are still being produced in independent cinema, though they may receive less mainstream attention.
D) Some of the most successful films of the 1970s and 1980s were also adaptations of books, plays, or older films.
E) The availability of streaming services has increased competition, making it harder for original films to succeed at the box office.

Argument Evaluation

Situation:
The critic claims that the reliance on sequels, remakes, and adaptations in modern films proves that today’s directors lack storytelling skills compared to those of earlier decades.

Reasoning:
The argument assumes that the presence of sequels and adaptations indicates a decline in storytelling ability, but it does not account for other forms of creativity in modern cinema. If it can be shown that earlier films also relied on adaptations or that modern directors are innovating in other ways, the argument is significantly weakened.

A. Correct. If modern films employ more complex storytelling techniques than older films, this directly contradicts the claim that directors today are less skilled at storytelling.
B. Incorrect. This explains why audiences may prefer sequels but does not address whether directors have lost storytelling ability.
C. Incorrect. While this suggests that original screenplays still exist, it does not refute the critic’s claim about mainstream cinema.
D. Incorrect. This weakens the argument slightly but does not prove that modern films are just as creative as older ones.
E. Incorrect. This provides an external reason for why original films might struggle but does not directly address storytelling skill.

Correct Answer: A.

Q5. Artificial Intelligence in Medical Diagnoses

Proponents of artificial intelligence (AI) in medicine argue that AI-driven diagnostic tools will soon outperform human doctors in identifying complex diseases. These proponents cite studies in which AI models have demonstrated equal or superior accuracy compared to experienced physicians in diagnosing specific conditions, such as certain types of cancer. However, AI skeptics argue that AI lacks the nuanced judgment and contextual understanding necessary for accurate diagnoses across a broad range of medical cases.

Which of the following, if true, would most strongly support the skeptics’ argument?

A) AI models are only as good as the data they are trained on, and biases in medical datasets can lead to misdiagnoses in underrepresented populations.
B) Some hospitals have successfully implemented AI-driven diagnostics to assist physicians, improving both efficiency and accuracy.
C) AI can analyze vast amounts of medical literature in seconds, allowing it to recognize rare diseases that human doctors might overlook.
D) Studies comparing AI and human diagnostic accuracy typically focus on narrow fields of medicine, rather than the broad range of conditions a doctor must diagnose.
E) In some cases, AI has flagged potential diagnoses that were later confirmed by human specialists, demonstrating its potential as a valuable medical tool.

Argument Evaluation

Situation:
The skeptics argue that AI lacks the nuanced judgment necessary to diagnose a wide range of conditions accurately. To support this argument, we need evidence that AI is limited in scope or struggles outside controlled conditions.

Reasoning:
To strengthen the skeptics’ position, we need evidence showing that AI’s diagnostic abilities are not broadly applicable. If AI’s accuracy is limited to specific medical fields and does not generalize well, this would strongly support the claim that it cannot fully replace human doctors.

A. Incorrect. While bias in training data is a concern, this does not directly address the argument about nuanced judgment and broad diagnostic ability.
B. Incorrect. This weakens the skeptics’ argument by suggesting that AI is already improving medical diagnostics.
C. Incorrect. This weakens the skeptics’ argument by showing AI’s ability to outperform humans in rare disease detection.
D. Correct. If AI’s high accuracy is only demonstrated in narrow fields of medicine rather than across the full range of conditions, it directly supports the argument that AI lacks the broad diagnostic skills of human doctors.
E. Incorrect. This weakens the skeptics’ claim by suggesting AI can successfully assist doctors in making diagnoses.

Correct Answer: D.

Q6. Cryptocurrency and Financial Stability

Many advocates of cryptocurrency argue that digital currencies will eventually replace traditional fiat currencies, making financial systems more decentralized and resistant to government intervention. They cite cases where cryptocurrencies have provided financial access to people in unstable economies with high inflation. However, critics argue that the volatility and lack of centralized control in cryptocurrencies make them an unreliable foundation for a stable financial system.

Which of the following, if true, would most strongly support the critics’ argument?

A) Cryptocurrencies rely on decentralized networks, which protect them from government manipulation.
B) Despite their volatility, cryptocurrencies have been increasingly used as a store of value in countries experiencing economic crises.
C) The value of major cryptocurrencies has fluctuated by more than 50% within short periods, causing sudden and unpredictable losses for investors and businesses.
D) Some central banks are considering issuing their own digital currencies, which could offer the benefits of cryptocurrency while maintaining government oversight.
E) Cryptocurrency transactions are recorded on public ledgers, making them more transparent than traditional banking transactions.

Argument Evaluation

Situation:
The critics argue that cryptocurrencies are too volatile and lack centralized control, making them an unstable foundation for financial systems.

Reasoning:
To support the critics’ claim, we need evidence showing that cryptocurrency’s volatility creates financial instability and prevents it from functioning as a reliable currency.

A. Incorrect. This supports cryptocurrency’s decentralization but does not address its stability.
B. Incorrect. This weakens the critics’ argument by showing that cryptocurrencies have been useful in economic crises.
C. Correct. If cryptocurrencies experience extreme volatility, causing unpredictable losses, this strongly supports the claim that they lack the stability needed for a financial system.
D. Incorrect. This suggests an alternative solution (central bank digital currencies) but does not prove cryptocurrency itself is unstable.
E. Incorrect. While transparency is a benefit, it does not address the argument about volatility and control.

Correct Answer: C.

Q7.

A research team has discovered an unclassified meteorite that is believed to be from a recently identified asteroid. The meteorite’s chemical composition matches the asteroid’s known elements, but it shows an unusually high level of a rare isotope. This isotope profile is typically associated with artificial processes used in laboratory simulations of asteroid impacts. Therefore, the research team concludes that the meteorite is probably not natural and was artificially created in a laboratory experiment.

Which of the following, if true, most seriously weakens the research team’s argument?

A) Other meteorites believed to have originated from the same asteroid do not exhibit high levels of the rare isotope.
B) The rare isotope is produced during laboratory simulations, but it can also occur naturally under extreme pressure and temperature conditions, such as those found on asteroids.
C) The meteorite was discovered in a region that has historically been a source of naturally occurring asteroid fragments.
D) The research team lacks documentation proving the laboratory origin of the meteorite in question.
E) Meteorites with rare isotopes are often misidentified, leading to debates over their classification.

Argument Evaluation

Situation:
The research team claims that a meteorite with a high level of a rare isotope is probably artificial because such isotopes are typically associated with laboratory experiments rather than natural processes.

Reasoning:
To weaken the argument, we need evidence that the isotope’s presence does not necessarily imply artificial origin. If it can occur under natural conditions, the conclusion that the meteorite was artificially created is undermined.

A. Incorrect. This strengthens the argument by showing inconsistency with other meteorites from the same asteroid.
B. Correct. If the isotope can occur naturally under extreme conditions, this directly undermines the claim that the meteorite is artificial.
C. Incorrect. While this supports the meteorite’s natural origin generally, it does not address the isotope’s presence specifically.
D. Incorrect. This points to a lack of proof for the laboratory origin but does not challenge the reasoning about the isotope.
E. Incorrect. This focuses on classification debates, which are irrelevant to the argument about the meteorite’s artificial origin.

Correct Answer: B.

Q8. Forensic Evidence in Criminal Cases

A forensic analyst claims that a piece of handwriting found at a crime scene was likely forged. The analyst bases this conclusion on the fact that the handwriting contains inconsistencies in letter formation and spacing, which are characteristic of forgeries. However, the analyst acknowledges that the handwriting sample is small, containing only a short phrase of five words.

Which of the following, if true, most seriously weakens the forensic analyst’s argument?

A) Inconsistencies in letter formation and spacing can occur naturally when a person is in a state of stress or hurry.
B) The handwriting sample was compared to only one sample of the suspect’s handwriting, which might not represent the full range of their natural writing style.
C) The forensic analyst did not use advanced tools, such as AI-based handwriting analysis, to validate their findings.
D) The handwriting on the sample does not match the handwriting of any other individual connected to the crime scene.
E) Forged handwriting samples tend to show consistent stylistic errors that are not present in this handwriting sample.

Argument Evaluation

Situation:
The analyst argues that a handwriting sample from a crime scene is likely forged because of inconsistencies in letter formation and spacing.

Reasoning:
To weaken the argument, we need evidence that the inconsistencies do not necessarily imply forgery. If natural circumstances, such as stress or haste, can explain the inconsistencies, the analyst’s conclusion is undermined.

A. Correct. If natural causes like stress or haste can explain the inconsistencies, this directly challenges the assumption that they indicate forgery.
B. Incorrect. This points to a methodological flaw in the analysis but does not weaken the conclusion about the handwriting being forged.
C. Incorrect. The use of advanced tools is irrelevant unless it directly impacts the conclusion about the handwriting inconsistencies.
D. Incorrect. This strengthens the argument by eliminating alternative suspects for the handwriting.
E. Incorrect. While this challenges the typical characteristics of forgeries, it does not address whether the inconsistencies could be natural.

Correct Answer: A.

Q9. Urban Tree Decline

In a large metropolitan area, a government initiative introduced fast-growing tree species into urban parks in 2010 to improve air quality and reduce heat island effects. By 2015, the tree canopy in these parks had expanded significantly, leading to measurable improvements in air quality. However, by 2020, the growth rate of these trees had dramatically slowed, and many trees showed signs of stress and dieback.

Which of the following statements, if true, would best explain the 2020 decline in the health and growth of the trees?

A) The fast-growing tree species planted in 2010 require significant amounts of water, but a prolonged drought from 2017 to 2020 reduced water availability.
B) The fast-growing tree species were planted at a higher density than recommended, leading to competition for resources such as sunlight and soil nutrients.
C) The fast-growing trees introduced in 2010 are less tolerant of urban pollution than native species, making them more vulnerable to the effects of air pollution.
D) Urban planners did not account for the increased maintenance needs of fast-growing tree species, resulting in neglected pruning and pest management efforts after 2015.
E) The native trees in nearby urban parks, which were not part of the initiative, experienced similar growth declines during the same period.

Argument Evaluation

Situation:
Fast-growing trees planted in 2010 initially improved urban air quality, but by 2020, their growth slowed, and they showed signs of stress and dieback.

Reasoning:
To explain the decline, we need evidence that something inherent to the trees, their environment, or their maintenance practices caused the stress and dieback.

A. Incorrect. While drought could explain stress in the trees, it does not account for the decline specific to the fast-growing species introduced in 2010.
B. Correct. If the trees were planted at a higher density than recommended, competition for resources such as sunlight and nutrients would directly explain the decline in their growth and health by 2020.
C. Incorrect. While urban pollution could affect these trees, the argument already notes their success in improving air quality, making this explanation less relevant.
D. Incorrect. While poor maintenance could contribute to the decline, the argument focuses on inherent factors related to the trees themselves, making this explanation less convincing.
E. Incorrect. This weakens the argument by suggesting an external factor affecting all trees, but it does not explain the specific stress observed in the fast-growing trees introduced in 2010.

Correct Answer: B

Q10. Mobile Phone Manufacturer’s Plan

A mobile phone manufacturer makes most of its profit on accessories, such as chargers, cases, and headphones, rather than on the phones themselves. To boost accessory sales, the company plans to release a new phone model with a unique charging port that is compatible only with the company’s newly designed accessories. These accessories will be sold at the same price as the company’s current accessory line.

Which of the following, if true, most strongly supports the manufacturer’s projection that its plan will lead to an increase in accessory sales?

A) Customers upgrading to the new phone model will need to purchase compatible accessories, as their existing ones will not work with the new charging port.
B) A competing phone manufacturer recently introduced a phone model with a similar unique charging port and saw a modest increase in accessory sales.
C) Market research shows that many customers prefer phone accessories sold by the company over third-party alternatives, even when the price is higher.
D) The company’s current accessory line is compatible with most existing phone models from the manufacturer.
E) The cost of manufacturing accessories for the new phone model is expected to be lower than the cost of manufacturing the current accessory line.

Evaluation of a Plan

Situation:
The phone manufacturer plans to release a phone with a unique charging port, expecting that this will drive customers to purchase more of the company’s new accessories, which are designed exclusively for the new phone.

Reasoning:
The success of the plan depends on whether customers will need to purchase the new accessories for the phone and whether the new phone will sell well. If customers are forced to buy the new accessories because their old ones are incompatible, this will strongly support the projection of increased accessory sales.

A. Correct. If customers upgrading to the new phone are required to purchase compatible accessories, this directly strengthens the projection that accessory sales will increase.
B. Incorrect. A competitor’s similar plan does not guarantee that this manufacturer’s plan will be successful, as the increase mentioned is only modest.
C. Incorrect. While customer preference for the company’s accessories is a positive factor, it does not specifically address the exclusivity of the new accessories or their sales impact.
D. Incorrect. The compatibility of the current accessory line with existing phone models does not strengthen the projection for sales of the new, exclusive accessories.
E. Incorrect. Lower manufacturing costs might increase profits but do not guarantee increased sales.

Correct Answer: A.

Q11. Scientific Contributions of Nikola Tesla

Two recent publications provide contrasting assessments of the scientific contributions of Nikola Tesla. A book by Marcus Ryder argues that Tesla’s reputation as a visionary has been inflated. Ryder asserts that many of Tesla’s ideas, while theoretically intriguing, lacked practical application during his lifetime. For example, Tesla’s ambitious plans for wireless transmission of energy never materialized, and his financial struggles prevented him from completing key projects. Ryder claims that Tesla’s iconic status owes much to modern reinterpretations of his work and the romanticized image of the “misunderstood genius” promoted in popular culture.

In contrast, the editors of a new collection of Tesla’s patents and letters highlight his groundbreaking innovations and lasting influence on science and technology. They note that Tesla’s alternating current (AC) system forms the backbone of modern power distribution networks, revolutionizing the way energy is transmitted across great distances. Additionally, Tesla’s pioneering experiments in radio waves laid the groundwork for wireless communication, long before Marconi’s developments. The editors emphasize Tesla’s methodical approach to scientific inquiry and his ability to envision technologies far ahead of his time.

I believe that Tesla’s legacy should be viewed as a complex interplay of scientific brilliance and unfulfilled potential. While many of his ambitious goals were never realized during his lifetime, his contributions to the fields of electromagnetism and energy transmission remain foundational. Moreover, his vision for the future of technology inspired generations of scientists to push the boundaries of innovation.

Question

The passage is primarily concerned with evaluating:

A) The theoretical underpinnings of Nikola Tesla’s scientific ideas
B) The influence of Nikola Tesla’s work on twentieth-century technology
C) Contradictory interpretations of Nikola Tesla’s historical significance
D) The relative importance of alternating current and radio waves in Tesla’s body of work
E) The role of popular culture in shaping perceptions of Nikola Tesla

Main Idea Evaluation

Consider the passage as a whole to answer the question:
The author presents two contrasting assessments of Tesla’s significance: one that minimizes his historical contributions and another that emphasizes his groundbreaking achievements. The passage also synthesizes these views in the final paragraph by acknowledging both Tesla’s successes and his unfulfilled potential.

A. Incorrect. While the passage mentions the theoretical aspects of Tesla’s work, the focus is on differing interpretations of his overall legacy.
B. Incorrect. The influence of Tesla’s work on twentieth-century technology is discussed, but the primary concern is the evaluation of differing views about his significance.
C. Correct. The passage is centered on contrasting interpretations of Tesla’s historical contributions and the synthesis of these views.
D. Incorrect. The passage discusses these contributions but does not compare their relative importance.
E. Incorrect. Popular culture is mentioned in one argument but is not the central concern of the passage.

Correct Answer: C.

Q12. Influence of Historical Figures

Two recent publications offer different perspectives on the role of the philosopher John Stuart Mill in shaping modern liberalism. A book by Frederick Mason contends that Mill’s ideas on individual liberty, as presented in On Liberty, are overemphasized in contemporary discussions. Mason argues that Mill’s principles often contradict themselves and that his work primarily reflected the intellectual debates of his time rather than shaping enduring political frameworks. Mason further claims that Mill’s legacy owes much to the advocacy of later scholars who framed him as a central figure in liberal thought.

In contrast, the editors of a new annotated edition of On Liberty argue that Mill’s emphasis on the protection of individual freedoms and the limitations on state power directly influenced legal and political reforms in the 20th century. They point to specific instances where Mill’s writings were cited in debates over civil liberties and human rights, highlighting his enduring relevance. According to the editors, Mill’s advocacy for free speech and individual autonomy resonates with contemporary challenges, such as regulating online platforms and safeguarding personal privacy.

Question

According to the passage, the editors of the new annotated edition of On Liberty credit John Stuart Mill with contributing to which of the following?

A) The framing of arguments used in 20th-century debates over civil liberties and human rights
B) The creation of a formal legal framework to limit state power during his lifetime
C) The popularization of ideas about individual autonomy through advocacy by later scholars
D) A specific regulatory approach for managing online platforms in the 21st century
E) Establishing a system of government that prioritizes free speech and individual privacy

Answer Explanation

The passage highlights the editors’ argument that Mill’s ideas on individual liberty influenced 20th-century legal and political debates, particularly concerning civil liberties and human rights.

A. Correct. The editors specifically credit Mill’s writings with shaping arguments in debates about civil liberties and human rights in the 20th century.
B. Incorrect. While Mill advocated for limitations on state power, the passage does not suggest he created a formal legal framework during his lifetime.
C. Incorrect. This reflects Mason’s claim, not the editors’ view.
D. Incorrect. The editors note the relevance of Mill’s ideas to contemporary challenges but do not credit him with creating a regulatory approach for online platforms.
E. Incorrect. While Mill’s ideas influenced political thought, the passage does not suggest he established a system of government.

Correct Answer: A.

Q13. Evaluating Perspectives on John Stuart Mill

According to the passage, Frederick Mason argues which of the following about John Stuart Mill’s legacy?

A) Mill’s ideas on individual liberty were central to the development of modern political frameworks.
B) Mill’s legacy is largely a product of later scholars who elevated his reputation.
C) Mill’s writings were instrumental in shaping debates on civil liberties and human rights in the 20th century.
D) Mill’s work reflected timeless principles that continue to influence contemporary challenges.
E) Mill’s advocacy for free speech led directly to the establishment of privacy laws.

Answer Explanation

The passage describes Mason’s argument as minimizing the originality and influence of Mill’s ideas, instead attributing his legacy to the efforts of later scholars who framed him as a central figure.

A. Incorrect. This reflects the editors’ perspective, not Mason’s.
B. Correct. Mason claims Mill’s legacy owes much to later scholars who promoted his reputation.
C. Incorrect. This reflects the editors’ argument, not Mason’s.
D. Incorrect. Mason argues that Mill’s work primarily reflected the intellectual debates of his time, not timeless principles.
E. Incorrect. The passage does not suggest that Mill’s advocacy directly led to privacy laws.

Correct Answer: B.

Q14. Renewable Energy Adoption

During a recent panel discussion, one expert argued that the slow adoption of renewable energy technologies is primarily due to high upfront costs, which deter both governments and private companies from investing in solar and wind power. Another expert countered that the issue is not primarily cost but rather the inefficiency of energy storage technologies, which makes renewables unreliable for consistent power supply.

Which of the following statements best captures the reasoning behind the second expert’s position?

A) The transition to renewable energy would be faster if subsidies for traditional fossil fuels were removed.
B) Without significant improvements in energy storage technology, renewable energy sources will remain impractical for meeting large-scale energy demands.
C) The high upfront costs of renewable energy projects are less significant than their long-term economic and environmental benefits.
D) Governments and companies are reluctant to invest in renewables due to uncertainty about future technological advancements.
E) Energy storage inefficiency is only a minor factor compared to the financial burden of renewable energy adoption.

Reasoning and Explanation

Situation:
The second expert argues that the inefficiency of energy storage technology, not cost, is the primary factor slowing renewable energy adoption.

Reasoning:
To support the second expert’s position, we need a statement that directly ties the success of renewable energy adoption to the limitations of energy storage technology.

A. Incorrect. This focuses on subsidies for fossil fuels, which is unrelated to energy storage inefficiencies.
B. Correct. This directly aligns with the second expert’s argument, stating that storage technology is critical to the practicality of renewables.
C. Incorrect. This supports renewable adoption generally but does not address energy storage.
D. Incorrect. While uncertainty about advancements may slow adoption, it does not align with the specific reasoning about energy storage.
E. Incorrect. This directly contradicts the second expert’s argument by minimizing the role of energy storage inefficiencies.

Correct Answer: B.

Q15. Housing Market Dynamics

Emma: Recent statistics show that 70% of homes in suburban areas have remained on the market for over six months, which is a clear indication that suburban housing demand has sharply declined.

Ryan: But many of these homes are listed at prices significantly above market value. Sellers may be reluctant to lower their asking prices despite changes in market conditions, which can result in longer listing durations without necessarily reflecting a decline in demand.

Ryan’s argument is structured to lead to which of the following as a conclusion?

A) The fact that 70% of suburban homes remain on the market for over six months does not necessarily indicate a drop in housing demand.
B) Homeowners in suburban areas are not adjusting to market conditions as quickly as buyers would prefer.
C) Declines in suburban housing demand are less significant than Emma assumes based on the data.
D) Homes priced above market value typically take longer to sell, even in high-demand areas.
E) The suburban housing market is less dynamic than the urban housing market.

Argument Construction

Situation:
Emma interprets the statistic about homes remaining on the market as evidence of declining housing demand. Ryan counters that longer listing times may instead reflect overpricing by sellers, rather than a decline in buyer interest.

Reasoning:
Ryan’s argument suggests that the statistic Emma cites does not directly indicate a decline in demand, as longer listing times can be caused by overpricing.

A. Correct. Ryan’s argument supports the conclusion that the statistic about long listing times does not necessarily mean that demand has dropped.
B. Incorrect. While this may align with Ryan’s argument, it does not directly address Emma’s interpretation of the data.
C. Incorrect. This overstates Ryan’s argument, which does not directly assess the significance of the demand decline but focuses on alternative explanations for the data.
D. Incorrect. While this is true, it focuses on pricing dynamics rather than directly addressing Emma’s claim about demand.
E. Incorrect. Ryan does not compare suburban and urban markets, so this conclusion is not supported.

Correct Answer: A.

Q16. Corporate Regulations

To address potential conflicts of interest, a corporation proposed a policy that would prohibit senior executives from serving on the boards of competing companies for five years after leaving the corporation. One senior executive argued that such a policy would be unfair because it would severely limit the career opportunities available to senior executives after leaving the corporation.

The senior executive’s conclusion logically depends on which of the following assumptions?

A) Laws and policies should not restrict the professional opportunities available to individuals after they leave a corporation.
B) Senior executives are more likely than other employees to serve on the boards of competing companies after leaving their positions.
C) Senior executives are often qualified for positions on corporate boards only at companies that directly compete with their former employers.
D) Policies similar to the one proposed are already in place at many other corporations.
E) The primary reason senior executives leave the corporation is to seek positions on the boards of competing companies.

Reasoning and Explanation

Situation:
The corporation considers a policy barring senior executives from serving on competitors’ boards for five years. The executive argues that this would unfairly limit career opportunities.

Reasoning:
The argument assumes that serving on competitors’ boards is a primary or necessary career option for these executives. If this assumption is false, the argument falls apart because the policy would not unfairly limit their opportunities.

A. Incorrect. This general principle about fairness is too broad to be the necessary assumption for the specific argument.
B. Incorrect. While this might explain the prevalence of the issue, it is not critical to the argument about limiting opportunities.
C. Correct. This is the key assumption: the argument depends on the idea that senior executives often rely on competitors’ boards as a significant or only career option after leaving their roles.
D. Incorrect. The existence of similar policies elsewhere does not address the fairness of this specific policy.
E. Incorrect. This overstates the argument; it assumes that serving on competitors’ boards is the primary reason executives leave, which is not required for the argument.

Correct Answer: C.

Q17. Smartphone Battery Life

Smartphone batteries often lose their capacity to hold a charge after a year of regular use. A tech researcher hypothesized that this reduction in capacity is caused primarily by heat exposure during charging, rather than by the natural aging of the battery materials.

Which of the following investigations is most likely to yield significant information that would help to evaluate the researcher’s hypothesis?

A) Determining whether batteries in smartphones charged with fast chargers degrade more quickly than those charged with standard chargers
B) Determining whether older smartphone models have better battery performance than newer models
C) Determining whether different brands of smartphones experience battery degradation at similar rates
D) Determining whether a battery that has lost capacity can be fully recharged when placed in a controlled laboratory environment
E) Determining whether smartphones with degraded batteries charge faster than smartphones with fully functional batteries

Reasoning and Explanation

Situation:
The researcher hypothesizes that heat exposure during charging causes battery degradation. Heat during charging might affect how the battery behaves after degradation. Investigating whether degraded batteries charge faster than fully functional ones could provide critical insights into the relationship between heat exposure and degradation by identifying behavioral changes in the battery that align with the hypothesis.

Reasoning:
The best investigation would focus on observing behavioral differences in degraded batteries compared to fully functional ones. If degraded batteries charge faster, it could indicate internal changes related to heat exposure during charging.

A. Incorrect. This tests fast versus standard charging rates, which focuses on the rate of degradation rather than the behavior of degraded batteries.
B. Incorrect. Comparing older and newer models does not directly test battery behavior or heat-related impacts.
C. Incorrect. Comparing brands does not directly address the role of heat exposure.
D. Incorrect. Testing recharging in a lab environment would not reveal the relationship between charging heat and capacity loss.
E. Correct. If degraded batteries charge faster than fully functional ones, this could point to internal changes caused by charging conditions, including heat exposure, supporting the hypothesis.

Correct Answer: E.

Q18. Measuring the Productivity of Teachers

Correctly measuring the productivity of teachers is a complex task. For example, teachers are often said to be more productive if their students achieve higher standardized test scores. But is this really true? What if higher scores are achieved at the expense of student engagement or deeper understanding of the material?

The objection implied above to the productivity measure described is based on doubts about the truth of which of the following statements?

A) Test scores are a sufficient indicator of a teacher’s effectiveness.
B) Teachers’ productivity should be evaluated using standardized metrics rather than subjective assessments.
C) Student engagement and understanding are less important than test performance in evaluating teachers.
D) Productivity measures for teachers should account for differences in classroom environments.
E) Teachers’ productivity can be fairly measured using the performance of their students.

Reasoning and Explanation

Situation:
The objection questions whether student test scores alone are an adequate measure of a teacher’s productivity, suggesting that other factors, such as student engagement and understanding, should also be considered.

Reasoning:
The objection challenges the idea that test scores alone are sufficient to measure productivity, emphasizing that focusing only on test performance might overlook other critical aspects of teaching quality.

A. Correct. This is the core assumption being questioned: whether test scores alone are a sufficient indicator of teacher effectiveness. The objection implies they are not.
B. Incorrect. The argument does not specifically address whether subjective or standardized measures are better but instead critiques the focus on test scores.
C. Incorrect. The argument implies that engagement and understanding are important but does not claim they are less important than test performance.
D. Incorrect. While differences in classroom environments might be relevant, this is not the focus of the objection.
E. Incorrect. This is a broader statement that does not focus on the sufficiency of test scores.

Correct Answer: A.

Q19. High-End Technology Products

People buy high-end technology products, such as luxury smartphones and smartwatches, to signal their status and uniqueness. They want products that stand out as premium and exclusive. Therefore, strategies such as offering frequent discounts and mass-market availability should be avoided because __________.

A) luxury technology products require significantly higher production costs than standard technology products
B) mass-market availability and frequent discounts make the products seem less premium and less desirable to their target audience
C) customers of high-end technology products prioritize cutting-edge features over brand exclusivity
D) increasing the availability of luxury technology products can increase their adoption among a broader market segment
E) customers view frequent discounts as an indication of poor sales and declining product quality

Reasoning and Explanation

Situation:
High-end technology products attract customers because of their premium status and exclusivity. Strategies like discounts and mass-market availability would undermine this exclusivity, making the products seem less desirable to their target audience.

Reasoning:
The correct answer will highlight how these strategies conflict with the perceived value of premium technology products, which relies on their exclusivity and luxury appeal.

A. Incorrect. While production costs might be higher for luxury products, the argument is about marketing strategies, not production.
B. Correct. This directly addresses how mass-market availability and discounts harm the perception of exclusivity, making the products less desirable to high-end customers.
C. Incorrect. While cutting-edge features might matter, the argument focuses on exclusivity and status, not features.
D. Incorrect. Increasing availability directly contradicts the idea of maintaining exclusivity, which is the foundation of the argument.
E. Incorrect. While customers might associate discounts with poor sales, this does not specifically address the exclusivity and premium perception central to the argument.

Correct Answer: B.

Q20. Organic Food Labeling

Organic foods were once considered superior in quality to conventionally grown foods due to their natural growing methods and lack of synthetic additives. However, as farming techniques have improved and regulations have become stricter, the quality gap between organic and conventional foods has narrowed significantly. Despite this, products labeled as “organic” continue to command higher prices and enjoy greater consumer trust than their conventional counterparts.

Which of the following, if true, most helps to resolve the paradox outlined above?

A) Consumers perceive the organic label as a trustworthy indicator that the food is free from harmful chemicals, regardless of the actual quality difference.
B) Organic farming techniques are generally more labor-intensive and require more resources than conventional methods.
C) Many grocery stores have expanded their organic product lines, making organic foods more widely available than ever before.
D) The process for certifying a product as organic has become more rigorous, making it difficult for producers to maintain organic status.
E) The pricing of organic products often reflects the higher costs associated with obtaining organic certification rather than the actual quality of the food.

Reasoning and Explanation

Situation:
While the quality difference between organic and conventional foods has diminished, organic products still command higher prices and trust. The paradox is that the label “organic” continues to provide a marketing advantage despite the reduced quality gap.

Reasoning:
To resolve this paradox, we need an explanation for why the “organic” label still appeals to consumers. If consumers see the organic label as a guarantee that the food is free from harmful chemicals, it would explain why they continue to trust and pay more for organic products, even if the quality is similar to conventional foods.

A. Correct. This directly explains the consumer behavior that maintains the marketing advantage of organic labels, despite the diminished quality gap.
B. Incorrect. The higher labor and resource costs do not explain why consumers continue to trust and prefer organic labels.
C. Incorrect. Increased availability does not explain the enduring marketing advantage of organic labels.
D. Incorrect. Stricter certification processes do not address consumer trust or the marketing advantage of the label.
E. Incorrect. Pricing related to certification costs does not explain consumer trust or the marketing advantage of organic labels.

Correct Answer: A.

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